Christ died for our sins. Can you tell how?

Christ died for our sins. Can you tell how?

Joined: June 29th, 2012, 5:26 pm

April 20th, 2017, 8:10 am #1

Can you tell how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures?

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Joined: January 10th, 2004, 7:03 am

April 30th, 2017, 8:26 am #2

He died in our place, so we won't have to die in the lake of fire. Without his death, all of us would die in the lake of fire, after all scriptures say that without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness. So it is not like for example in modern Judaism, where people believe they can be forgiven without a blood sacrifice. In reality this is impossible. So a holy sacrifice was necessary, the only sinless person had to die for us, that was Christ.
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Joined: June 29th, 2012, 5:26 pm

May 3rd, 2017, 2:12 pm #3

Can you tell HOW THAT Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures?

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Joined: January 10th, 2004, 7:03 am

May 14th, 2017, 5:45 am #4

That was Zech. 12:10.
And concerning that he died for our sins, that too was prophesied, by Isaiah, in 53:5-6.
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Joined: June 29th, 2012, 5:26 pm

May 14th, 2017, 5:52 am #5

How was His death on the cross be for the sin of the world?
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Joined: January 10th, 2004, 7:03 am

May 14th, 2017, 6:51 am #6

ever become saved. So not for the sins of those destined for the lake of fire.
For example 1 John 3:16 says: "The way he came to know love was that he laid down his life for us...". So he died for us saints. Had he died for the sins of those destined for the lake of fire, then their sins would be paid for too, they would get eternal life. Similarly Acts 20:28 says "... the church of God that he acquired with the blood of his own". So God acquired only the church with the blood of his own Son, who then paid for the sins of only the church, with his blood. Eph. 5:25 says "Husbands, love your wives, just as Christ loved the church and handed himself over for her". So he died for the sins of the church. Not for everybody in the world, or else they would all be saved.
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Joined: June 29th, 2012, 5:26 pm

May 14th, 2017, 1:10 pm #7

HOW is it that his death was for the sins of the world, and not just a death like the death of those who were crucified with him who died because of their crimes, or like an innocent man who was condemned to death for the crime of murder that he did not commit? How is his death on the cross, a death for the sin of the world? Was it because he was innocent of the crime he was charge of?

How?
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Joined: January 10th, 2004, 7:03 am

May 15th, 2017, 12:56 am #8

sacrifice for our sins. So it is not because he was innocent of the crime he was charged of, but he was innocent of all sins.
As Heb. 9:22 tells us "According to the Law, almost everything is purified by blood, and without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness".
The Old Testament blood sacrifices required unblemished clean animals, and this pointed forward to the unblemished pure sacrifice of the only sinless human. Without the shedding of his blood there would be no forgiveness of sins. And Jesus was the only sinless human. Babies are not sinless, so they could not be sacrificed, the Old Testament made that very clear. The Canaanites and other nations of the holy land evidently thought that babies are sinless, so they were sacrificing some of them. But it was a great sin. Only Jesus could be sacrificed, he was the only perfect human sacrifice.
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Joined: June 29th, 2012, 5:26 pm

May 15th, 2017, 6:36 pm #9

Because he was innocent of all sin, that made then his death on the cross a sacrifice for the sin of the world?
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Joined: May 19th, 2013, 11:04 pm

May 19th, 2017, 2:00 am #10

Can you tell how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures?
Please tell us what "Scripture" was Psul referring to (1 Cor. 15:3)..
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