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[color=#0000FF" size="4" face="times]Bill,It should be quite clear that when Jesus said, "Before Abraham was, I am," Jesus indicated that He had always existed, had been with God as God from the foundation of the world, as John 1:1 also teaches. The "I am" [caps or no caps] of Exodus is said in the same context as in John: that is, "I exist and have always existed." Thus, by saying that, Jesus was telling the Jews that He was God in the flesh. That's why they desired to stone Him. We must also realize that whereas capitalization and punctuation are standard in the English language, they were not standard in the language of the Bible. Therefore, there is no difference in context between God's "I AM" in Exodus vs. Jesus' "I am" in John, because Jesus is God in the flesh. Comparing Jesus' "I am" to Paul's "I am" is to compare apples with oranges, because Paul was not divine, whereas Jesus was.
[color=#0000FF" size="4" face="times]Dave,Donnie, you have tried that one before. You try to muddy the water with anything that would mention "I am." The "I am" is NOT the same as the "I Am" that both Jesus and God ONLY can attest to.
You tried that before and were proved to be wrong. It has nothing to do with the Greek text, but the MEANING only.
You said "(2) The expression "I am" [no caps], with the same Greek text, was said by:
------ Paul in Acts 26:28,29 [KJV] -- "Then Agrippa said unto Paul, Almost thou persuadest me to be a Christian. And Paul said, I would to God, that not only thou, but also all that hear me this day, were both almost, and altogether such as I am, except these bonds." But that "I am" did not make Paul into God."
You were right to say that the "I am' that Paul used there did not make him God. You knew that already though. The two "I Am' that asserted DIETY. You knew that with grammar the one you quoted in Acts 26 spoke of a noun-verbiage. 'I am what?'
I AM, the phrase as being God, is used only twice...once by God in Exodus and once by Jesus in John
Not even a good try Donnie.