Cristo-tao/diyos

Cristo-tao/diyos

Joined: May 31st, 2012, 2:25 pm

May 31st, 2012, 2:27 pm #1

alin ba ang tama?si cristo ay o tao lamang
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Joined: June 29th, 2012, 5:26 pm

June 29th, 2012, 6:16 pm #2

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Joined: July 1st, 2012, 7:56 pm

July 1st, 2012, 8:42 pm #3

alin ba ang tama?si cristo ay o tao lamang
How can Jesus be God and man?
October 5, 2006 | by Matt Perman | Topic: The Deity of Christ

Equally amazing to the doctrine of the Trinity is the doctrine of the Incarnation--that Jesus Christ
is God and man, yet one person, forever. As J.I. Packer has said: "Here are two mysteries for the
price of one--the plurality of persons within the unity of God, and the union of Godhead and
manhood in the person of Jesus. ...Nothing in fiction is so fantastic as is this truth of the
Incarnation," writes contemporary theologian J.I. Packer.1

The early church considered the Incarnation to be one of the most important truths of our faith.
Because of this, they formulated what has come to be called the Chalcedonean Creed, a
statement which sets forth very what we are to believe and what we are not to believe about the
Incarnation. This creed was the fruit of a large council that took place from October 8 to
November 1, 451, in the city of Chalcedon and "has been taken as the standard, orthodox
definition of the biblical teaching on the person of Christ since that day by" all the major branches
of Christianity.2 There are five main truths with which the creed of Chalcedon summarized the
biblical teaching on the Incarnation.

1. Jesus has two natures -- He is God and man.
2. Each nature is full and complete -- He is fully God and fully man.
3. Each nature remains distinct.
4. Christ is only one Person.
5. Things that are true of only one nature are nonetheless true of the Person of Christ.

A proper understanding of these truths clears up much confusion and many difficulties we may
have in our mind. How can Jesus be both God and man? Why doesn't this make Him two
people? How does His Incarnation relate to the Trinity? How could Jesus have hungered
(Matthew 4:2) and died (Mark 15:37) when He was on earth, and yet still be God? Did Jesus give
up any of His divine attributes in the Incarnation? Why is it inaccurate to say that Jesus is a "part"
of God? Is Jesus still human now, and does He still have His human body?

Jesus has two natures -- God and man
The first truth we need to understand is that Jesus is one Person who has two natures a divine
nature and a human nature. In other words, Jesus is both God and man. We will look at each
nature accordingly.

Jesus is God

The Bible teaches that Jesus is not merely someone who is a lot like God, or someone who has
a very close walk with God. Rather, Jesus is the Most High God Himself. Titus 2:13 says that as
Christians we are "looking for the blessed hope and the appearing of the glory of our great God
and Savior, Christ Jesus." Upon seeing the resurrected Christ, Thomas cried out, "My Lord and
my God !" (John 20:28). Likewise, the book of Hebrews gives us God the Father's direct
testimony about Christ: "But of the Son He says, 'Thy throne, O God , is forever and ever" and the
gospel of John calls Jesus "the only begotten God " (John 1:18).

Another way the Bible teaches that Jesus is God is by showing that He has all of the attributes of
God. He knows everything (Mt 16:21; Luke 11:17; John 4:29), is everywhere (Matthew 18:20;
28:20; Acts 18:10), has all power (Mt 8:26, 27; 28:18; Jn 11:38-44; Lk 7:14-15; Revelation 1:8),
depends on nothing outside of Himself for life (Jn 1:4; 14:6; 8:58), rules over everything (Mt 28:18;
Rev 19:16; 1:5) never began to exist and never will cease to exist (John 1:1; 8:58), and is our
Creator (Colossians 1:16). In other words, everything that God is, Jesus is. For Jesus is God.
Specifically, Jesus is God the Son

In order to have a more complete grasp of Christ's incarnation, it is necessary to have some sort
of understanding of the Trinity. The doctrine of the Trinity states that God is one being, and this
one God exists as three distinct Persons. This means, first of all, that we must distinguish each
Person of the Trinity from the other two. The Father is not the Son or the Holy Spirit, the Son is
not the Holy Spirit or the Father, and the Holy Spirit is not the Father or the Son. They are each a
distinct center of consciousness, a distinct form of personal existence. Yet, they all share the
exact same divine nature/essence. Thus, the three persons are one being. The divine
being/essence is not something that is divided between the Persons, each Person receiving onethird.
Rather, the divine being is fully and equally possessed by all three Persons such that all
three Persons are each fully and equally God.

How does the fact that God is three Persons in one Being relate to the incarnation? To answer
this, let's consider another question. Which Person became incarnate in Jesus Christ? All three?
Or just one? Which one? The Biblical answer is that only God the Son became incarnate . The
Father did not become incarnate in Jesus, and neither did the Holy Spirit. Thus, Jesus is God,
but He is not the Father or the Holy Spirit. Jesus is God the Son.

The truth that it is only God the Son who became incarnate is taught, for example, in John 1:14,
which says "And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, glory as
of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth." In context, the word is God the Son
(cf. vv. 1, 18, and 3:16). Thus, it wasn't the Father or the Holy Spirit who became man, but God
the Son.
Likewise, at Jesus' baptism we see the Father affirming "Thou art My beloved Son, in Thee I am
well-pleased" (Luke 3:22). He did not say, "You are me, and with myself I am well-pleased."
Rather, the Father affirmed that Jesus is the Son, His Son, and that Jesus is well-pleasing to
Him. In this same verse we also see that the Holy Spirit is distinct from the Father and the Son,
for the Holy Spirit is present in "bodily form like a dove."

Why is it important to know that Jesus is specifically God the Son? For one thing, if we do not
understand this we will be mistaken about the very identity of our savior. Further, it greatly affects
how we relate to our triune God. If we think that Jesus is the Father and/or the Holy Spirit, we will
be greatly misguided and confused in our prayers. Last, it is considered heresy to believe that the
Father became incarnate in Jesus.

Jesus is man
It should be obvious that if Jesus is God, then He has always been God. There was a never a
time when He became God, for God is eternal. But Jesus has not always been man . The
fantastic miracle is that this eternal God became man at the Incarnation approximately 2,000
years ago. That's what the Incarnation was--God the Son becoming man. And its this great even
that we celebrate at Christmas.

But what exactly do we mean when we say that God the Son became man? We certainly do not
mean that He turned into a man, in the sense that He stopped being God and started being man.
Jesus did not give up any of His divinity in the Incarnation, as is evident from the verses we saw
earlier. Rather, as one early theologian put it, "Remaining what He was, He became what He
was not." Christ "was not now God minus some elements of His deity, but God plus all that He
had made His own by taking manhood to Himself."3 Thus, Jesus did not give up any of His divine
attributes at the Incarnation. He remained in full possession of all of them. For if He were to ever
give up any of His divine attributes, He would cease being God.

The truth of Jesus' humanity is just as important to hold to as the truth of His deity. The apostle
John speaks strongly anyone that denying that Jesus is man is of the spirit of the anti-Christ (1
John 4:2; 2 John 7). Jesus' humanity is displayed in the fact that He was born as a baby from a
human mother (Luke 2:7; Galatians 4:4), that He became weary (John 4:6), thirsty (John 19:28),
and hungry (Matthew 4:2), and that He experienced the full range of human emotions such as
marvel (Matt. 8:10), weeping, and sorrow (John 11:35). He lived on earth just as we do.

Jesus is a sinless man
It is also essential to know that Christ does not have a sinful nature, and neither did He ever
commit sin -- even though He was tempted in all ways (Hebrews 4:15). Thus, Jesus is fully and
perfectly man, and has also experienced the full range of human experience. We have a Savior
who can truly identify with us because He is man, and who can also truly help us in temptation
because He has never sinned. This is an awesome truth to cherish, and sets Christianity apart
from all other religions.

Each nature is full and complete
Having seen the biblical basis that Jesus is both God and man, the second truth that we must
recognize is that each of Christ's natures is full and complete. In other words, Jesus is fully God
and fully man. Another helpful way to say it is that Jesus is 100% God and 100% man.
Jesus is fully God
We saw earlier that each Person of the Trinity is fully God. The three Persons of the Trinity are
not each one-third of God, but are each all of God. Thus, Jesus is fully God since He is God the
Son incarnate. This means that everything that is essential to being God is true of Jesus. Jesus is
not part of God, or one-third of God. Rather, He is fully God. "For in Him all the fullness of Deity
dwells in bodily form" (Colossians 2:9).
Jesus is fully man
It is also important to recognize that when we say that Jesus is man, we do not simply mean that
He is partially man. We mean that He is fully human -- everything that belongs to the essence of
true humanity is true of Him. He is just as truly human as the rest of us.

The fact that Jesus is truly and fully human is clear from the fact that He has a human body (Luke
24:39), a human mind (Luke 2:52), and a human soul (Matthew 26:38). Jesus does not just look
like a man, He does not just have some aspects of what is essential for true humanity but not
others, but possess full humanity.

It is helpful to be aware of the false views concerning Christ. For if we have a grasp of what we
are not to believe, it will give us a fuller picture of what we are to believe. One of the false views
that was rejected at the council of Chalcedon taught that "the one person of Christ had a human
body but not a human mind or spirit, and that the mind and spirit of Christ were from the divine
nature of the Son of God."4 Since this view did not believe that Jesus has a human mind and
spirit, it in effect denied that Christ is fully and truly man. Rather, it presented Christ as a sort of
half-man who has a human body, but whose human mind and soul were replaced by the divine
nature. But as we saw earlier, Jesus is just as fully human as the rest of us, for just as He has all
of the essential elements of Godhead, He has all the essential elements of human nature a
human body, a human soul, a human mind, a human will, and human emotions. His human mind
was not replaced by His divine mind. Rather, He has both a human and divine mind. For these
reasons, it can be misleading to use phrases such as "Jesus is God in a body" or "Jesus is God
with skin on."

Jesus will be fully God and fully man forever
For most people it is obvious that Jesus will be God forever. But for some reason it escapes a lot
of us that Jesus will also be man forever. He is still man right now as you read this and will be
forever. The Bible is clear that Jesus rose physically from the dead in the same body that had
died (Luke 24:39) and then ascended into heaven as a man, in His physical body (Acts 1:9; Luke
24:50-51). It would make no sense for Him to have done this if He was simply going to ditch His
body and stop being man when He arrived in heaven.

That Christ continued being man, with a physical body, after His ascension is confirmed by the
fact that when He returns, it will be as man, in His body. He will return physically. Philippians
3:21 says that at His Second Coming, Christ "will transform the body of our humble state into
conformity with the body of His glory ." This verse is clear that Jesus still has His body. It is a
glorified body, which Paul calls "the body of His glory." And when Christ returns, He will still have
it because this verse says that He will transform our bodies to be like His. Both Jesus and all
Christians will then continue living together in their bodies forever, because the resurrection body
cannot die (1 Corinthians 15:42) because it is eternal (2 Corinthians 5:1).

Why did Jesus become man, and why will He be man forever? The book of Hebrews says that it
was so that Christ could be an adequate Savior who has all that we need. "He had to be made
like His brethren in all things, that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in things
pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people" (2:17). First, notice that Jesus
became man so that He could die for our sins. He had to be human in order to pay the penalty for
humans. Second, this verse says that because Jesus is human like us, He is able to be a
merciful and faithful high priest. His humanity enables Him to more fully sympathize with us and
identify with us. I cannot help but believe that it is very destructive to our comfort and faith to not
know that Jesus is still man and in His body. For if He is not still man in heaven, how could we
have comfort knowing that He can fully sympathize with us? He can sympathize and be a faithful
high priest and know what we are going through not just because He was once on earth as a
man, but because He continues forever as that same man.

Each nature remains distinct
The truths of Christ's two natures full manhood and full Godhood are pretty well understood and
known by Christians. But for a right understanding of the Incarnation we must go even further. We
must understand that the two natures of Christ remain distinct and retain their own properties.
must understand that the two natures of Christ remain distinct and retain their own properties.
What does this mean? Two things: (1) They do not alter one another's essential properties, and
(2) neither do they mix together into a mysterious third kind of nature.

First, it would be wrong to think that Christ's two natures mix together to form a third kind of
nature. This is one of the heresies that the early church had to fight. This heresy taught that "the
human nature of Christ was taken up and absorbed into the divine nature, so that both natures
were changed somewhat and a third kind of nature resulted. An analogy to [this] can be seen if
we put a drop of ink in a glass of water: the mixture resulting is neither pure ink nor pure water,
but some kind of third substance, a mixture of the two in which both the ink and the water are
changed. Similarly, [this view] taught that Jesus was a mixture of divine and human elements in
which both were somewhat modified to form one new nature."5 This view is unbiblical because it
demolishes both Christ's deity and humanity. For if Christ's two natures mixed together, then He
is no longer truly and fully God and truly and fully man, but is some entirely different kind of being
that resulted from a mixture of the two natures.

Second, even if we acknowledge that the natures do not mix together into a third kind of nature, it
would also be wrong to think that the two natures changed one another. For example, it would be
wrong to conclude that Jesus' human nature became divine in some ways, or that His divine
nature became human in some ways. Rather, each nature remains distinct, and thereby retains
its own individual properties and does not change . As the council of Chalcedon stated it, "...the
distinction of natures being by no means taken away by the union, but rather the property of each
nature being preserved..."6 Jesus' human nature is human, and human only. His divine nature is
divine, and divine only. For example, Jesus' human nature did not become all knowing through
its union with God the Son, and neither did His divine nature become ignorant of anything. If any
of the natures underwent a change in its essential nature, then Christ is no longer truly and fully
human, or truly and fully divine.

Christ is only one Person
What we have seen so far about the deity and humanity of Christ shows us that Christ has two
natures -- a divine nature and a human nature -- , that each nature is full and complete, that they
remain distinct and do not mix together to form a third kind of nature, and that Christ will be both
God and man forever.

But if Christ has two natures, does this mean that He is also two people? No, it does not. Christ
remains one person. There is only one Christ. The church has historically stated this truth in this
way: Christ is two natures united in one person forever.

At this point we find another heretical view to beware of. This view, while acknowledging that
Jesus is fully God and fully man, denies that He is only one Person. According to this view, there
are two separate persons in Christ as well as two natures. In contrast to this, the Bible is very
clear that, while Jesus has two natures, He is only one Person. In other words, what this means
is that there are not two Jesus Christ's. In spite of the fact that He has a duality of natures, He is
not two Christs, but One. While remaining distinct, the two natures are united together in such a
way so as to be one Person.

To put it simply, there is a certain sense in which Christ is two, and a different sense in which
Christ is one. He is two in that He has two real, full natures one divine and one human. He is one
in that, while remaining distinct, these two natures exist together in such a way as that they
constitute "one thing." In other words, the two natures are both the same Jesus, and thus are one
Person. As the Chalcedonean creed says, Christ is "to be acknowledged in two
natures...concurring in one Person and one Subsistence, not parted or divided into two persons,
but one and the same Son, and only begotten, God, the Word, the Lord Jesus Christ..."

Evidence that Christ is Only One Person
We will look at three pieces of the biblical teaching that while Christ has two distinct and
unchanged, He nonetheless remains one Person.

1. Both natures are represented in Scripture as constituting "one thing," that is, as united
in one Person. We read in John 1:14, "And the word became flesh and dwelt among us." Here
we see the two natures: the Word (His deity) and flesh (humanity). Yet we also see that there is
one Person, for we read that the Word became flesh. "Became" requires that we acknowledge a
unity of the two natures such that they are one thing--that is, one Person. For in what sense could
John write that the word became flesh if they do not constitute one Person? It surely cannot mean
"turned into" flesh, for that is against the Scriptural teaching on the distinctness of the natures.
Additional Scriptures relating to this line of evidence are Romans 8:3, Galatians 4:4, 1 Timothy
3:16, Hebrews 2:11-14, 1 John 4:2,3.

2. Jesus never speaks of Himself as "We," but always as "I"

3. Many passages refer to both natures of Christ, but it is clear that only one person is
intended It is impossible to read the following passages, which clearly affirm Christ's two
natures, and yet conclude that Christ is two Persons. "For what the Law could not do, weak as it
was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an
offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh..." (Romans 8:3). "But when the fulness of the time
came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the law..." (Galatians 4:4). "...who,
although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped
[that is, exploited to His own advantage], but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant,
and being made in the likeness of men" (Philippians 2:6-7).
Having seen that Christ is two natures in one person, and having also seen what is involved in
this, we will now examine one of the major implications of this, which should help us to complete
the picture and our understanding.

Implication: Things that are true of one nature but not the other are nonetheless true of the
Person of Christ

As we have seen earlier, the fact that Christ is two natures means that there are things that are
true of His human nature that are not true of His divine nature. And there are things true of His
divine nature that are not true of His human nature. For example, His human nature hungered,
but His divine nature could never be hungry. So when Christ hungered on earth, it was His
humanity that hungered, not His divine nature.
But the truth that we are now in a position to understand, is that by virtue of the union of the
natures in one Person, the things that are true of and done by only one of Christ's natures, are
nonetheless true of and done by the Person of Christ. In other words, things which only one
nature does can be considered to have been done by Christ Himself. Likewise, things that are
true of one nature but not the other are true of the Person of Christ as a whole. What this means,
in simple terms, is that if there is something that only one of Christ's natures did, He can still say,
"I did it."
We have many instances in Scripture which demonstrate this. For example, Jesus says in John
8:58, "...before Abraham was born, I am." Now, Christ's human nature did not exist before
Abraham. It is Christ's divine nature that eternally exists before Abraham. But since Christ is one
Person, He could say that before Abraham was, He is.
Another example is Christ's death. God cannot die. We should never speak of Christ's death as
the death of God. But humans can die, and Jesus' human nature did die. Thus, even though
Jesus' divine nature did not die, we can still say that the Person of Christ experienced death
because of the union of the two natures in the one Person of Christ. Because of this, Grudem
says, "by virtue of union with Jesus' human nature, his divine nature somehow tasted something
of what it was like to go through death. The person of Christ experienced death."7
Have you ever wondered how Jesus could say that He did not know the day or hour of His return
(Matthew 24:36) even though He is omniscient (John 21:17). If Jesus is God, why didn't He know
the day of His return? This is solved by our understanding that Christ is one Person with two
natures. The answer is that in regards to His human nature, Jesus does not have all knowledge.
Thus, in His human nature He really did not know the day or hour of His return. But in His divine
nature, He does have all knowledge and thus in His divine nature He did know when He would
return.
Here comes the most fascinating part. Since the two natures are united in one Person, the fact
that Christ's human nature didn't know when He would return means that the Person of Christ did
not know when He would return. Thus, Jesus the Person could truly say, "But of that day and
hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone" (Matthew
24:36). At the same time, by virtue of His divine nature, we can also say that the Person of Christ
did know when He would return. Knowledge and ignorance of the time of His return are both true
of the Christ, but in different ways. In His human nature, the Person of Christ was ignorant of
when He would return. In His divine nature, the Person of Christ did know when He would return.
Thus, Christ Himself both knew and did not know when He would return.
Conclusion
We have seen the biblical evidence for the fact that Christ is God the Son, He has both a divine
and human nature, that each nature is full and complete, that each nature remains distinct, that
Christ is nonetheless one Person, and that things which are true of one nature are true of the
Person.
The relevance of these truths to us should go without saying. For they go to the very heart of who
Christ is. Knowing these truths will greatly affect the way you view Christ and will make the
gospel accounts of His life come more alive. As such, this understanding will deepen our
devotion to Christ.
Second, having this richer understanding of the Incarnation of God the Son should greatly
enhance our worship. We will have great marvel and gladness at the fact that the eternal Person
of God the Son became man forever. Our recognition of Christ's worth will be heightened. And
our faith in Him will be strengthened by having this deeper understanding of who He is.

The union of Christ's deity and humanity in one Person makes it such that we have all that we
need in the same Savior. How glorious. Because Jesus is God, He is all-powerful and He cannot
be defeated. Because He is God, He is the only adequate Savior. Because He is God, believers
are safe and can never perish; we have security. Because He is God, we can have confidence
that He will empower us for the task that He commands us for. And because He is God, all
people will be accountable to Him when He returns to judge the world.

Because Jesus is man, He has experienced the same things that we do. Because He is man, He
can identify with us more intimately. Because He is man, He can come to our aid as our
sympathetic High Priest when we reach the limits of our human weaknesses. Because He is
man, we can relate to Him--He is not far off and uninvolved. Because He is man, we cannot
complain that God does not know what we are going through. He experienced it first-hand.
Finally, we need to be ready to defend the truth of Jesus' deity, Jesus' humanity, and their joining
inconfusedly in one Person . Therefore, consider committing to memory many of the verses
which teach that Jesus is both God and man, and be able to explain the relationship between
Christ's two natures to others.

May we look forward to the day when we see Him face to face, and until then may the joyful hope
of this day inspire in us a great diligence in serving and worshiping Him.

Notes
1 J.I. Packer, Knowing God (Downers Grove, Illinois: InterVarsity Press, 1993 edition), p. 53.
2 Wayne Grudem, Systematic Theology: An Introduction to Biblical Doctrine (InterVarsity and
Zondervan Publishing, 1994), p. 556.
3 Packer, p. 57.
4 Grudem, p. 554.
5 Grudem, p. 556.
6 Chalcedonean Creed, quoted in Grudem, p. 557.
7 Grudem, p. 560.
©2012 Desiring God Foundation. Used by Permission.
Permissions: You are permitted and encouraged to reproduce and distribute this material in any
format provided that you do not alter the wording in any way and do not charge a fee beyond the
cost of reproduction. For web posting, a link to this document on our website is preferred. Any
exceptions to the above must be approved by Desiring God.
Please include the following statement on any distributed copy: By John Piper. ©2012
Desiring God Foundation. Website: desiringGod.org
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Joined: July 1st, 2012, 11:02 pm

July 2nd, 2012, 8:39 pm #4

John 20:17
"Jesus *said to her, Stop clinging to Me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, I ascend to My Father and your Father, and **My God and your God.**

If one truly listens to God's son, then how can anyone believe Christ is almighty GOD? He didn't ever say he is GOD.
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Joined: June 27th, 2012, 4:44 am

July 4th, 2012, 12:28 pm #5

do ya agree with that, Jed?

Only God is worthy of worship- man, angels or any other servants of God are not worthy of worship (Rev 22:7-9). Jesus said it himself to worship God and serve him only (Mat 4:10). The apostles said to bow down and worship God (1Cor 14:25). so why did you choose to go the other way, Jed?
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Joined: July 1st, 2012, 7:56 pm

July 5th, 2012, 7:42 pm #6

John 20:17
"Jesus *said to her, Stop clinging to Me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, I ascend to My Father and your Father, and **My God and your God.**

If one truly listens to God's son, then how can anyone believe Christ is almighty GOD? He didn't ever say he is GOD.
Questions from a Muslim about Jesus being God
By CARM

http://carm.org/religious-movements/isl ... -being-god


Following is a list of questions that CARM received from a Muslim via e-mail. The answers are provided along with commentary. Generally speaking, Muslims do not seem to understand Christian theology. They repeatedly ask the same kinds of questions. Nevertheless, here are the responses and we hope that they help Muslims understand Christian theology better so that they would choose to come to Christ instead of follow Mohammed.

The original e-mail is in brown with our response in green.

Also, you will notice throughout this response that this same basic answer is given to multiple questions. This is because the one truth concerning Christ's two natures answers almost all of the objections this Muslim has raised.

-----------------

Muslim: In the Name of Allah, Most Beneficent, Most Merciful. To my fellow People of the Book and fellow siblings of Adam, I would like to draw your attention to the following facts in the hope that you may see the truth. For your own sake, read with the intent of finding the truth and not with the intent of winning an argument. If after this, you don't believe, then I have tried. Either way, it is between you and ALLAH, the one God.

CARM: We are saddened to see the continued deception held by Muslims. They do not follow the true God and they fail to understand who Christ really is. Muslims believe that the Bible has been corrupted (it hasn't), so that they can make room for the justification to deny what it really says. Instead of believing the eyewitnesses, they believe what Mohammed said about Jesus 600 years later. So, essentially they are believing what their so-called Prophet said instead of those who actually walked and talked with Christ. Add to that a lack of understanding of biblical theology and you get the following questions:

-----------

Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in Mark 12:29 did Jesus say, "Here, O Israel: The Lord our God is one Lord." The words "our God" indicate that Jesus had a higher God over him, a stronger God than him. Jesus didn't say "Your God". He said "our God" which includes Jesus as the creation of GOD.

CARM: Basic Christian theology teaches that Jesus was both God and man. He had two natures. He was both divine and human at the same time. This teaching is known as the hypostatic union; that is, the coming-together of two natures in one person. In Heb. 2:9 states that Jesus was ". . . made for a little while lower than the angels . . ." Also in Phil. 2:5-8, it says that Jesus "emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men . . ." Col. 2:9 says, "For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form." Jesus was both God and man at the same time.

Therefore, since he was a man (though not only a man) and since he was made under the law, and lower than the angels, it is natural to conclude that he would have someone that he would call God. In this case, it is God the Father.

But we must make a clarification. To say that Jesus Christ is God is not as clear a statement as it needs to be. Christianity teaches that God is a Trinity; that is, God is Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. To say that Jesus Christ is God is almost like saying that he is the Trinity, and that would make no sense. When the Christian says that Jesus is God, he really means that Jesus is divine in nature. Since God is three persons, and since Jesus is the second person in the Trinity, he shares the same divinity with the Father and Holy Spirit.

Having explained this, when Jesus says "Our God" it must be understood that Jesus is speaking as a man. But it does not mean he does not possess the divine nature as well.

For further reading please see the two natures of Jesus.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 20:17 did Jesus say, "I ascend to my God and your God? This tells us that we and Jesus have a common GOD.

CARM: The same explanation above applies here.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 8:28 did Jesus say, "I do nothing of myself"? Can't GOD do anything he wills?

CARM: Jesus was fulfilling his ministry completely as a man. He was made under the law (Gal. 4:4) and operated under the law. He fulfilled his ministry having emptied himself (Phil. 2:5-8) and was completely subject to the Father (Luke 22:42). Therefore, since he was under obligation to fulfill the law (which included complete dependence upon the Father), and since he had emptied himself and was working in cooperation with human limitations, he would naturally do nothing of himself. Jesus did not come to do his own will, but the will of the Father. "Father, if Thou art willing, remove this cup from Me; yet not My will, but Thine be done, ' (Luke 22:42). 'I can do nothing on My own initiative. As I hear, I judge; and My judgment is just, because I do not seek My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me," (John 5:30).

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 14:28 did Jesus say, "My Father (GOD) is greater than I"?

CARM: "You heard that I said to you, 'I go away, and I will come to you. ' If you loved Me, you would have rejoiced, because I go to the Father; for the Father is greater than I,'" (John 14:28).

Jesus said the Father was greater than He not because Jesus is not God, but because Jesus was also a man and as a man he was in a lower position. He was ". . . made for a little while lower than the angels . . ." (Heb. 2:9). Also in Phil. 2:5-8, it says that Jesus "emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men . . ."

Jesus has two natures. Jesus was not denying that He was God. He was merely acknowledging the fact that He was also a man. Jesus is both God and man. As a man, he was in a lesser position than the Father. He had added to Himself human nature (Col. 2:9). He became a man to die for people.

A comparison can be found in the marriage relationship. Biblically, a husband is greater in position and authority than his wife. But, he is no different in nature and he is not better than she. They share the same nature, being human, and they work together by love.

So, Jesus was not denying that He was God. He was simply acknowledging that He was also a man and as a man, he was subject to the laws of God so that He might redeem those who were under the law; namely, sinners (Gal. 4:4-5).

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in Luke 23:46 did Jesus say, "Father (GOD), into thy hands I commend my spirit"?

CARM: Because Jesus has two natures, divine and human, as a man he would have someone he would call his God. This does not make two gods since the doctrine of the Trinity states that there is only one God in three persons and that the second person of the Trinity became man. Therefore, Jesus committed himself to God the Father.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in Matthew 19:16 did Jesus say, "Why call me good, there is none good but One, that is GOD"?

CARM: The simple question to ask here is, "was Jesus good?" If the Muslim wants to say that Jesus is not good, then he's saying that Jesus was evil. If, however, the Muslim wants to admit that Jesus was good, then the natural conclusion is that Jesus is God.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in Matthew 26:39 did Jesus beg his GOD to have mercy on him and to pass the cup to death (kill Jesus in another words) before Jesus goes through the pain of crucifixion? Also see: Jesus's crucifixion in Islam.

CARM: Jesus did not ask to be killed. As a man, he did not want to go through the torturous ordeal of the crucifixion. What man would desire such a horrible death? The fact that Jesus did not want to go through it is proof enough that he was human. But it does not mean that he was not divine.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 18:38 didn't he reply when he was asked about the truth.

CARM: John 18:38 says, "Pilate said to Him, 'What is truth? ' Jesus did not respond because of the Old Testament prophecy that said he was silent before his accusers. "He was oppressed and He was afflicted, yet He did not open His mouth; like a lamb that is led to slaughter, and like a sheep that is silent before its shearers, so He did not open His mouth," (Isaiah 53:7).

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in Matthew 24:36 did Jesus tell his followers that no one (including Jesus) knows when the judgment day will come, only GOD knows?

CARM: Matt. 24:36 says, "But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone." As a man, Jesus cooperated with the limitations of being a man. That is why we have verses like Luke 2:52 that says "Jesus kept increasing in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and men." Therefore, at this point in his ministry he could say He did not know the day nor hour of His return. It is not a denial of His being God, but a confirmation of Him being man.

Also, the logic that Jesus could not be God because He did not know all things works both ways. If we could find a scripture where Jesus does know all things, then that would prove that He was God, wouldn't it?

He said to him the third time, "Simon, son of John, do you love Me?" Peter was grieved because He said to him the third time, "Do you love Me?" And he said to Him, "Lord, You know all things; You know that I love You." Jesus *said to him, "Tend My sheep" (John 21:17 - NASB).

Jesus did not correct Peter and say, "Hold on Peter, I do not know all things." He let Peter continue on with his statement that Jesus knew all things. Therefore, it must be true.

But, if we have a verse that says that Jesus did not know all things and another that says he did know all things, then isn't that a contradiction? No. It is not.

Before Jesus' crucifixion and resurrection He said the Father alone knew the day and hour of His return. It wasn't until after Jesus' crucifixion and resurrection that omniscience is attributed to Jesus. As I said before, Jesus was cooperating with the limitations of being a man and completed His ministry on this earth. He was then glorified in His resurrection. Yet, He was still a man (cf. Col. 2:9; 1 Tim. 2:5). After Jesus' resurrection, He was able to appear and disappear at will. This is not the normal ability of a man. But, it is, apparently, the normal ability of a resurrected and glorified man. Jesus was different after the resurrection. There had been a change. He was still a man and He knew all things.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in Isaiah 11:2-3 did GOD put the spirit of fearing GOD in Jesus?

CARM: Isaiah 11:2-3 says, "And the Spirit of the Lord will rest on Him, the spirit of wisdom and understanding, the spirit of counsel and strength, the spirit of knowledge and the fear of the Lord. 3And He will delight in the fear of the Lord, and He will not judge by what His eyes see, nor make a decision by what His ears hear." It is good that this Muslim recognizes a prophecy concerning Christ and it adds to the validity and inspiration of the Bible.

This verse cannot be used as an objection to Christ's deity. As we have stated repeatedly above, Jesus was both divine and human and as a man he was under the law and behaved and acted as a man. This would mean that he would have the fear the Lord just as any godly Jew would. Furthermore, the word fear does not mean simply to be afraid. The context means awe, respect, etc.

The miracle of the incarnation is that the Word added human nature to himself in order to become one of us so that he might fulfill the law and take our place of punishment. In order for this to be done, the Word became flesh, became a man. This is why the Bible says that the word which was with God and was God, became flesh and dwelt among us (John 1:1,14). As a man, Jesus would naturally and properly have fear the Lord.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 5:31 did Jesus tell his followers that if he (Jesus) bears witness of himself, then his record is not true?

CARM: John 5:31 says, "If I alone bear witness of Myself, My testimony is not true." Jesus was speaking in accordance with Old Testament law that Paul referred to in 2 Cor. 13:1, "This is the third time I am coming to you. Every fact is to be confirmed by the testimony of two or three witnesses."

The Jews knew that truth was established by more than one witness. If Jesus was alone in his witness concerning himself, then how could his testimony be true? This is why the Old Testament law prohibited condemning someone to death on the testimony of a single witness. The idea was that for a fact to be established, you need more than one person testifying to a truth. Of course, in this context of Christ, we know that Jesus does have another witness because the Father bore witness of Jesus and commanded that we hear Jesus. "and behold, a voice out of the heavens, saying, 'This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well-pleased," (Matt. 3:17).

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 5:30 did Jesus tell his followers that he can't do a single thing of his own initiative?

CARM: As stated above, Jesus was a man, under the law, cooperating with the limitations of being a man, and who had come not to do his own will, but the will of the Father. Therefore he could do nothing of his own initiative because he was sent from the Father to do the will of the Father.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 5:36 did Jesus say that GOD had assigned him (Jesus) work and GOD is a witness on Jesus?

CARM: John 5:36 says, 'But the witness which I have is greater than that of John; for the works which the Father has given Me to accomplish, the very works that I do, bear witness of Me, that the Father has sent Me."

Again, this does not mean that Jesus does not have a divine nature. It means that Jesus was under the law and had been sent by the Father as a man to accomplish the purpose of the Father. This does not mean Jesus is not God.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 5:32 did Jesus tell his followers that they have never seen GOD at anytime nor ever heard his voice?

CARM: The Muslim made a mistake in his question. It is not John 5:32, but John 5:37. Also, the word is not "God". Instead, the word is "Father." John 5:32 says, "There is another who bears witness of Me, and I know that the testimony which He bears of Me is true." John 5:37 says, "And the Father who sent Me, He has borne witness of Me. You have neither heard His voice at any time, nor seen His form."

The answer is simple in that Jesus was speaking to the Jewish leaders and he told them that they had never seen the Father. Jesus is not the Father so Jesus' statement that they had never seen the Father is correct.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why did he pray to his GOD in Luke 5:16?

CARM: Luke 5:16 says, "But He Himself would often slip away to the wilderness and pray."

Again, the answer is simple. Jesus has two natures. He is divine and human. He was made under the law (Gal. 4:4), lower than the angels (Heb. 2:9), after having emptied himself (Phil. 2:5-8) even though he was the Word of God, which was God, and was made flesh, (John 1:1,14). Therefore, as we have stated before, Jesus would properly pray to God the Father.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in Matthew 26:39 did Jesus fall on his face and prayed to his GOD?

CARM: Same answer as above.
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Joined: July 1st, 2012, 7:56 pm

July 5th, 2012, 8:16 pm #7

do ya agree with that, Jed?

Only God is worthy of worship- man, angels or any other servants of God are not worthy of worship (Rev 22:7-9). Jesus said it himself to worship God and serve him only (Mat 4:10). The apostles said to bow down and worship God (1Cor 14:25). so why did you choose to go the other way, Jed?
A test: Do You Have The True Jesus?
by Matt Slick

There is a simple way to see if someone has the true Jesus or not. By true Jesus, I mean the one of the Bible, not the one of Mormonism who is the brother of the devil, nor the Jehovah's Witness Jesus who is Michael the Archangel, and certainly not the one of the New Age Movement who is simply a man in tune with the divine consciousness.
The Jesus of the Bible is prayed to (Acts 7:55-60; Psalm 116:4 and Zech. 13:9 with 1 Cor. 1:1-2).
The Jesus of the Bible is worshiped (Matt. 2:2,11; 14:33; 28:9; John 9:35-38; Heb. 1:6)
The Jesus of the Bible called God (John 20:28; Heb. 1:8).

In cult theologies, Jesus is a creation in one form or another (this is why the Jehovah's Witnesses add the word other' four times to Col. 1:16-17). Therefore, He is not to be prayed to, worshiped, or called God.

If you are a Christian then you will be able to pray to Jesus, not just through. You will be able to worship Jesus equally with the Father. And you will be able to call Jesus your Lord and God. A cultist cannot do this. A cultist has a false Jesus, and, therefore, a false hope of salvation.

The following is an expansion of the above points

If you put your faith in a Jesus that is not true, then your faith is useless. The power of faith does not rest in the act of believing, but in its object; the greatest faith in someone false is the same as no faith at all. Sincerity and false messiahs do not bridge the chasm of sin between God and man, only the Jesus of the Bible does that. Who then, is the true Jesus?

Jesus said that He was the only One who reveals the Father (Matt. 11:27 and Luke 10:22): "All things have been committed to me by my Father. No one knows who the Son is except the Father, and no one knows who the Father is except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal him," (NIV).

So, to know the true Father you must first know the true Jesus. The question is, how do you recognize the true Jesus? Simple, look in the Bible.

If you were to say, "Father receive my spirit," who would you be praying to? The Father, right?

If you were to say, "Jesus receive my spirit," who would you be praying to? Jesus.

In Acts 7:59, Stephen, while full of the Holy Spirit (v. 55), prayed to Jesus:

And they went on stoning Stephen as he called upon the Lord and said, "Lord Jesus, receive my spirit." (See also Acts 9:14; Rom. 10:13.)

(In Mormonism, in 3 Nephi 19:18 Jesus is prayed to and called Lord and God. This is useful to mention to a Mormon when necessary.)

Stephen prayed to Jesus, not just through Him. If it is acceptable for him then it should be alright for you. The Jesus of the Bible is prayed to. I pray to Jesus. Do you? If yes, good. If not, why?

But you might say, "Jesus said to pray to the Father." I do. But I also pray to Jesus as Stephen did. If the church is only to pray to the Father then why did Stephen, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, address Jesus in His prayer? Was he wrong? See also 1 Cor. 1:1-2 with Psalm 116:4 where calling upon the name of the Lord is prayer and prayer is addressed to Jesus by the Corinthian church.

Jesus was also worshipped. The verses are:
And those who were in the boat worshiped Him, saying, "You are certainly God's son! (Matt. 14:33).
And behold, Jesus met them and greeted them. And they came up and took hold of His feet and worshiped Him (Matt. 28:9).
See also Matt. 2:2,11; 14:33; 28:9; John 9:35-38; Heb. 1:6.

The Jesus of the Bible is prayed to and worshiped. Do you do what Jesus' disciples did? Do you pray to and worship the true Jesus?

Since it is against Mormon and Jehovah's Witness theologies to pray to Jesus, but only through Him if you do worship Jesus, how can you do that without praying to Him? And, do you honor Him equally with the Father as Jesus said to do in John 5:23? If you do not, then why not?

There is just one more issue to address. Do you call Jesus your Lord and God?

After Jesus' resurrection He showed Himself to many people. One of them was Thomas. John 20:28:

Thomas answered and said to Him [Jesus], "My Lord and my God!" The literal Greek says, "The Lord of me and the God of me."

(In Mormonism, in 3 Nephi 19:18 Jesus is prayed to and called Lord and God. This is useful to mention to a Mormon.)

"My God!" is a pagan expression used today. Two points can be made from this. First, do you agree that Thomas a devout Jew was swearing, like a pagan of today? Second, there is no biblical account of swear words. Peter did swear in Mark 14:71 by swearing he did not know Jesus. To say Thomas was swearing, or merely exclaiming profound surprise has no evidence.

God calls Jesus God in Heb. 1:8:


But of the Son He [the Father] says, "Thy throne, O God, is forever and ever..."

Unfortunately, in the Jehovah's Witness Bible in Heb. 1:8 you'll see that it says, "God is your throne, forever and ever." This, technically speaking, is a legitimate translation. The reason this is so lies in the nature of the Greek language and the fact that the form of the word "God" and "Throne" both end in a noun construction that is interchangeable, therefore making the NWT translation legitimate. It is unfortunate that the Watchtower has chosen to do this. Nevertheless, if you'd like to read more about this, then go to The Jehovah's Witnesses and Heb. 1:8 and Psalm 45:6.

Conclusion:

The Jesus of the Bible is prayed to (Acts 7:55-60; Psalm 116:4 and Zech. 13:9 with 1 Cor. 1:1-2), worshiped (Matt. 2:2,11; 14:33; 28:9; John 9:35-38; Heb. 1:6), and called Lord and God (John 20:28; Heb. 1:8). If I have the wrong Jesus, and therefore I serve the wrong God, then why do I pray to Jesus, worship Him, and call Him my Lord and God as the Scriptures teach? But, if you have the true Jesus, why is it you don't do those things? Why does JW theology not agree with the scriptures?

I think the answer is simple. The Jesus of the cults is not the true Jesus. Therefore, they are wrong.

There is a simple way to see if someone has the true Jesus or not. By true Jesus, I mean the one of the Bible, not the one of Mormonism who is the brother of the devil, nor the Jehovah's Witness Jesus who is Michael the Archangel, and certainly not the one of the New Age Movement who is simply a man in tune with the divine consciousness.
The Jesus of the Bible is prayed to (Acts 7:55-60; Psalm 116:4 and Zech. 13:9 with 1 Cor. 1:1-2).
The Jesus of the Bible is worshiped (Matt. 2:2,11; 14:33; 28:9; John 9:35-38; Heb. 1:6)
The Jesus of the Bible called God (John 20:28; Heb. 1:8).

In cult theologies, Jesus is a creation in one form or another (this is why the Jehovah's Witnesses add the word other' four times to Col. 1:16-17). Therefore, He is not to be prayed to, worshiped, or called God.

If you are a Christian then you will be able to pray to Jesus, not just through. You will be able to worship Jesus equally with the Father. And you will be able to call Jesus your Lord and God. A cultist cannot do this. A cultist has a false Jesus, and, therefore, a false hope of salvation.
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Joined: June 27th, 2012, 4:44 am

July 14th, 2012, 5:25 am #8

Questions from a Muslim about Jesus being God
By CARM

http://carm.org/religious-movements/isl ... -being-god


Following is a list of questions that CARM received from a Muslim via e-mail. The answers are provided along with commentary. Generally speaking, Muslims do not seem to understand Christian theology. They repeatedly ask the same kinds of questions. Nevertheless, here are the responses and we hope that they help Muslims understand Christian theology better so that they would choose to come to Christ instead of follow Mohammed.

The original e-mail is in brown with our response in green.

Also, you will notice throughout this response that this same basic answer is given to multiple questions. This is because the one truth concerning Christ's two natures answers almost all of the objections this Muslim has raised.

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Muslim: In the Name of Allah, Most Beneficent, Most Merciful. To my fellow People of the Book and fellow siblings of Adam, I would like to draw your attention to the following facts in the hope that you may see the truth. For your own sake, read with the intent of finding the truth and not with the intent of winning an argument. If after this, you don't believe, then I have tried. Either way, it is between you and ALLAH, the one God.

CARM: We are saddened to see the continued deception held by Muslims. They do not follow the true God and they fail to understand who Christ really is. Muslims believe that the Bible has been corrupted (it hasn't), so that they can make room for the justification to deny what it really says. Instead of believing the eyewitnesses, they believe what Mohammed said about Jesus 600 years later. So, essentially they are believing what their so-called Prophet said instead of those who actually walked and talked with Christ. Add to that a lack of understanding of biblical theology and you get the following questions:

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in Mark 12:29 did Jesus say, "Here, O Israel: The Lord our God is one Lord." The words "our God" indicate that Jesus had a higher God over him, a stronger God than him. Jesus didn't say "Your God". He said "our God" which includes Jesus as the creation of GOD.

CARM: Basic Christian theology teaches that Jesus was both God and man. He had two natures. He was both divine and human at the same time. This teaching is known as the hypostatic union; that is, the coming-together of two natures in one person. In Heb. 2:9 states that Jesus was ". . . made for a little while lower than the angels . . ." Also in Phil. 2:5-8, it says that Jesus "emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men . . ." Col. 2:9 says, "For in Him all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form." Jesus was both God and man at the same time.

Therefore, since he was a man (though not only a man) and since he was made under the law, and lower than the angels, it is natural to conclude that he would have someone that he would call God. In this case, it is God the Father.

But we must make a clarification. To say that Jesus Christ is God is not as clear a statement as it needs to be. Christianity teaches that God is a Trinity; that is, God is Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. To say that Jesus Christ is God is almost like saying that he is the Trinity, and that would make no sense. When the Christian says that Jesus is God, he really means that Jesus is divine in nature. Since God is three persons, and since Jesus is the second person in the Trinity, he shares the same divinity with the Father and Holy Spirit.

Having explained this, when Jesus says "Our God" it must be understood that Jesus is speaking as a man. But it does not mean he does not possess the divine nature as well.

For further reading please see the two natures of Jesus.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 20:17 did Jesus say, "I ascend to my God and your God? This tells us that we and Jesus have a common GOD.

CARM: The same explanation above applies here.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 8:28 did Jesus say, "I do nothing of myself"? Can't GOD do anything he wills?

CARM: Jesus was fulfilling his ministry completely as a man. He was made under the law (Gal. 4:4) and operated under the law. He fulfilled his ministry having emptied himself (Phil. 2:5-8) and was completely subject to the Father (Luke 22:42). Therefore, since he was under obligation to fulfill the law (which included complete dependence upon the Father), and since he had emptied himself and was working in cooperation with human limitations, he would naturally do nothing of himself. Jesus did not come to do his own will, but the will of the Father. "Father, if Thou art willing, remove this cup from Me; yet not My will, but Thine be done, ' (Luke 22:42). 'I can do nothing on My own initiative. As I hear, I judge; and My judgment is just, because I do not seek My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me," (John 5:30).

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 14:28 did Jesus say, "My Father (GOD) is greater than I"?

CARM: "You heard that I said to you, 'I go away, and I will come to you. ' If you loved Me, you would have rejoiced, because I go to the Father; for the Father is greater than I,'" (John 14:28).

Jesus said the Father was greater than He not because Jesus is not God, but because Jesus was also a man and as a man he was in a lower position. He was ". . . made for a little while lower than the angels . . ." (Heb. 2:9). Also in Phil. 2:5-8, it says that Jesus "emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men . . ."

Jesus has two natures. Jesus was not denying that He was God. He was merely acknowledging the fact that He was also a man. Jesus is both God and man. As a man, he was in a lesser position than the Father. He had added to Himself human nature (Col. 2:9). He became a man to die for people.

A comparison can be found in the marriage relationship. Biblically, a husband is greater in position and authority than his wife. But, he is no different in nature and he is not better than she. They share the same nature, being human, and they work together by love.

So, Jesus was not denying that He was God. He was simply acknowledging that He was also a man and as a man, he was subject to the laws of God so that He might redeem those who were under the law; namely, sinners (Gal. 4:4-5).

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in Luke 23:46 did Jesus say, "Father (GOD), into thy hands I commend my spirit"?

CARM: Because Jesus has two natures, divine and human, as a man he would have someone he would call his God. This does not make two gods since the doctrine of the Trinity states that there is only one God in three persons and that the second person of the Trinity became man. Therefore, Jesus committed himself to God the Father.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in Matthew 19:16 did Jesus say, "Why call me good, there is none good but One, that is GOD"?

CARM: The simple question to ask here is, "was Jesus good?" If the Muslim wants to say that Jesus is not good, then he's saying that Jesus was evil. If, however, the Muslim wants to admit that Jesus was good, then the natural conclusion is that Jesus is God.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in Matthew 26:39 did Jesus beg his GOD to have mercy on him and to pass the cup to death (kill Jesus in another words) before Jesus goes through the pain of crucifixion? Also see: Jesus's crucifixion in Islam.

CARM: Jesus did not ask to be killed. As a man, he did not want to go through the torturous ordeal of the crucifixion. What man would desire such a horrible death? The fact that Jesus did not want to go through it is proof enough that he was human. But it does not mean that he was not divine.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 18:38 didn't he reply when he was asked about the truth.

CARM: John 18:38 says, "Pilate said to Him, 'What is truth? ' Jesus did not respond because of the Old Testament prophecy that said he was silent before his accusers. "He was oppressed and He was afflicted, yet He did not open His mouth; like a lamb that is led to slaughter, and like a sheep that is silent before its shearers, so He did not open His mouth," (Isaiah 53:7).

-----------

Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in Matthew 24:36 did Jesus tell his followers that no one (including Jesus) knows when the judgment day will come, only GOD knows?

CARM: Matt. 24:36 says, "But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone." As a man, Jesus cooperated with the limitations of being a man. That is why we have verses like Luke 2:52 that says "Jesus kept increasing in wisdom and stature, and in favor with God and men." Therefore, at this point in his ministry he could say He did not know the day nor hour of His return. It is not a denial of His being God, but a confirmation of Him being man.

Also, the logic that Jesus could not be God because He did not know all things works both ways. If we could find a scripture where Jesus does know all things, then that would prove that He was God, wouldn't it?

He said to him the third time, "Simon, son of John, do you love Me?" Peter was grieved because He said to him the third time, "Do you love Me?" And he said to Him, "Lord, You know all things; You know that I love You." Jesus *said to him, "Tend My sheep" (John 21:17 - NASB).

Jesus did not correct Peter and say, "Hold on Peter, I do not know all things." He let Peter continue on with his statement that Jesus knew all things. Therefore, it must be true.

But, if we have a verse that says that Jesus did not know all things and another that says he did know all things, then isn't that a contradiction? No. It is not.

Before Jesus' crucifixion and resurrection He said the Father alone knew the day and hour of His return. It wasn't until after Jesus' crucifixion and resurrection that omniscience is attributed to Jesus. As I said before, Jesus was cooperating with the limitations of being a man and completed His ministry on this earth. He was then glorified in His resurrection. Yet, He was still a man (cf. Col. 2:9; 1 Tim. 2:5). After Jesus' resurrection, He was able to appear and disappear at will. This is not the normal ability of a man. But, it is, apparently, the normal ability of a resurrected and glorified man. Jesus was different after the resurrection. There had been a change. He was still a man and He knew all things.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in Isaiah 11:2-3 did GOD put the spirit of fearing GOD in Jesus?

CARM: Isaiah 11:2-3 says, "And the Spirit of the Lord will rest on Him, the spirit of wisdom and understanding, the spirit of counsel and strength, the spirit of knowledge and the fear of the Lord. 3And He will delight in the fear of the Lord, and He will not judge by what His eyes see, nor make a decision by what His ears hear." It is good that this Muslim recognizes a prophecy concerning Christ and it adds to the validity and inspiration of the Bible.

This verse cannot be used as an objection to Christ's deity. As we have stated repeatedly above, Jesus was both divine and human and as a man he was under the law and behaved and acted as a man. This would mean that he would have the fear the Lord just as any godly Jew would. Furthermore, the word fear does not mean simply to be afraid. The context means awe, respect, etc.

The miracle of the incarnation is that the Word added human nature to himself in order to become one of us so that he might fulfill the law and take our place of punishment. In order for this to be done, the Word became flesh, became a man. This is why the Bible says that the word which was with God and was God, became flesh and dwelt among us (John 1:1,14). As a man, Jesus would naturally and properly have fear the Lord.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 5:31 did Jesus tell his followers that if he (Jesus) bears witness of himself, then his record is not true?

CARM: John 5:31 says, "If I alone bear witness of Myself, My testimony is not true." Jesus was speaking in accordance with Old Testament law that Paul referred to in 2 Cor. 13:1, "This is the third time I am coming to you. Every fact is to be confirmed by the testimony of two or three witnesses."

The Jews knew that truth was established by more than one witness. If Jesus was alone in his witness concerning himself, then how could his testimony be true? This is why the Old Testament law prohibited condemning someone to death on the testimony of a single witness. The idea was that for a fact to be established, you need more than one person testifying to a truth. Of course, in this context of Christ, we know that Jesus does have another witness because the Father bore witness of Jesus and commanded that we hear Jesus. "and behold, a voice out of the heavens, saying, 'This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well-pleased," (Matt. 3:17).

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 5:30 did Jesus tell his followers that he can't do a single thing of his own initiative?

CARM: As stated above, Jesus was a man, under the law, cooperating with the limitations of being a man, and who had come not to do his own will, but the will of the Father. Therefore he could do nothing of his own initiative because he was sent from the Father to do the will of the Father.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 5:36 did Jesus say that GOD had assigned him (Jesus) work and GOD is a witness on Jesus?

CARM: John 5:36 says, 'But the witness which I have is greater than that of John; for the works which the Father has given Me to accomplish, the very works that I do, bear witness of Me, that the Father has sent Me."

Again, this does not mean that Jesus does not have a divine nature. It means that Jesus was under the law and had been sent by the Father as a man to accomplish the purpose of the Father. This does not mean Jesus is not God.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in John 5:32 did Jesus tell his followers that they have never seen GOD at anytime nor ever heard his voice?

CARM: The Muslim made a mistake in his question. It is not John 5:32, but John 5:37. Also, the word is not "God". Instead, the word is "Father." John 5:32 says, "There is another who bears witness of Me, and I know that the testimony which He bears of Me is true." John 5:37 says, "And the Father who sent Me, He has borne witness of Me. You have neither heard His voice at any time, nor seen His form."

The answer is simple in that Jesus was speaking to the Jewish leaders and he told them that they had never seen the Father. Jesus is not the Father so Jesus' statement that they had never seen the Father is correct.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why did he pray to his GOD in Luke 5:16?

CARM: Luke 5:16 says, "But He Himself would often slip away to the wilderness and pray."

Again, the answer is simple. Jesus has two natures. He is divine and human. He was made under the law (Gal. 4:4), lower than the angels (Heb. 2:9), after having emptied himself (Phil. 2:5-8) even though he was the Word of God, which was God, and was made flesh, (John 1:1,14). Therefore, as we have stated before, Jesus would properly pray to God the Father.

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Muslim: If Jesus was GOD, then why in Matthew 26:39 did Jesus fall on his face and prayed to his GOD?

CARM: Same answer as above.
show me where the apostles told us he is God.
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Joined: June 27th, 2012, 4:44 am

July 15th, 2012, 3:42 am #9

alin ba ang tama?si cristo ay o tao lamang
Jed has vanished himself to this issue?
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Joined: July 31st, 2009, 6:29 am

July 15th, 2012, 5:12 am #10

alin ba ang tama?si cristo ay o tao lamang
and left his God-man theory badly torn in bits and pieces ! LOL
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