Einstein Derived the Lorentz Equations from ... the Lorentz Equations

Einstein Derived the Lorentz Equations from ... the Lorentz Equations

Pentcho Valev
Pentcho Valev

January 11th, 2018, 2:34 pm #1

In 1905 Einstein derived the Lorentz equations from the constancy of the speed of light, but where did Einstein take the constancy from? He "borrowed" it from the Lorentz equations - it is as simple as that:

Albert Einstein: "...I introduced the principle of the constancy of the velocity of light, which I borrowed from H. A. Lorentz's theory of the stationary luminiferous ether..." https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lorentz_ether_theory

Pentcho Valev
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roger
roger

January 11th, 2018, 4:47 pm #2

good point, but then he discarded the ether to make it all look like nonsense.

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Anonym
Anonym

January 11th, 2018, 5:08 pm #3

In 1905 Einstein derived the Lorentz equations from the constancy of the speed of light, but where did Einstein take the constancy from? He "borrowed" it from the Lorentz equations - it is as simple as that:

Albert Einstein: "...I introduced the principle of the constancy of the velocity of light, which I borrowed from H. A. Lorentz's theory of the stationary luminiferous ether..." https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lorentz_ether_theory

Pentcho Valev
then he illegally transforms the lorentz transformations
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roger
roger

January 11th, 2018, 6:37 pm #4

In 1905 Einstein derived the Lorentz equations from the constancy of the speed of light, but where did Einstein take the constancy from? He "borrowed" it from the Lorentz equations - it is as simple as that:

Albert Einstein: "...I introduced the principle of the constancy of the velocity of light, which I borrowed from H. A. Lorentz's theory of the stationary luminiferous ether..." https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lorentz_ether_theory

Pentcho Valev
that's what messes them up

for inertial motion, given 2 people moving at non-zero constant velocity relative to each other

by Einstein under relativity: each observer says the other person's clock is slower

by Lorentz: only one clock is slower

Einstein throws away the aether/absolute/preferred frame and so we have nonsense of each person claiming time is slower for the other person

unfortunately, people who claim to believe Einstein's relativity are so messed up, that some of them actually believe Lorentz theory in mistaken belief they believe Einstein's theory

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Anonym
Anonym

January 11th, 2018, 6:50 pm #5

In 1905 Einstein derived the Lorentz equations from the constancy of the speed of light, but where did Einstein take the constancy from? He "borrowed" it from the Lorentz equations - it is as simple as that:

Albert Einstein: "...I introduced the principle of the constancy of the velocity of light, which I borrowed from H. A. Lorentz's theory of the stationary luminiferous ether..." https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lorentz_ether_theory

Pentcho Valev
also einstein substitutes expansion with contraction.
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Pentcho Valev
Pentcho Valev

January 11th, 2018, 7:12 pm #6

In 1905 Einstein derived the Lorentz equations from the constancy of the speed of light, but where did Einstein take the constancy from? He "borrowed" it from the Lorentz equations - it is as simple as that:

Albert Einstein: "...I introduced the principle of the constancy of the velocity of light, which I borrowed from H. A. Lorentz's theory of the stationary luminiferous ether..." https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lorentz_ether_theory

Pentcho Valev
This text, only slightly euphemistic, contains the whole truth about Einstein's relativity:

Banesh Hoffmann, Relativity and Its Roots, p.92: "Moreover, if light consists of particles, as Einstein had suggested in his paper submitted just thirteen weeks before this one, the second principle seems absurd: A stone thrown from a speeding train can do far more damage than one thrown from a train at rest; the speed of the particle is not independent of the motion of the object emitting it. And if we take light to consist of particles and assume that these particles obey Newton's laws, they will conform to Newtonian relativity and thus automatically account for the null result of the Michelson-Morley experiment without recourse to contracting lengths, local time, or Lorentz transformations. Yet, as we have seen, Einstein resisted the temptation to account for the null result in terms of particles of light and simple, familiar Newtonian ideas, and introduced as his second postulate something that was more or less obvious when thought of in terms of waves in an ether. If it was so obvious, though, why did he need to state it as a principle? Because, having taken from the idea of light waves in the ether the one aspect that he needed, he declared early in his paper, to quote his own words, that "the introduction of a 'luminiferous ether' will prove to be superfluous." https://www.amazon.com/Relativity-Its-R ... 0486406768

The most important points:

1. The Michelson-Morley experiment was directly compatible with the variable speed of light posited by Newton's emission theory of light.

2. The Michelson-Morley experiment was incompatible with the constant (independent of the motion of the emitter) speed of light "without recourse to contracting lengths, local time, or Lorentz transformations".

Pentcho Valev
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jz
jz

January 12th, 2018, 4:16 pm #7

In 1905 Einstein derived the Lorentz equations from the constancy of the speed of light, but where did Einstein take the constancy from? He "borrowed" it from the Lorentz equations - it is as simple as that:

Albert Einstein: "...I introduced the principle of the constancy of the velocity of light, which I borrowed from H. A. Lorentz's theory of the stationary luminiferous ether..." https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lorentz_ether_theory

Pentcho Valev
>>> Einstein throws away the aether/absolute/preferred frame and so we have nonsense of each person
claiming time is slower for the other person

Mathematically it is NOT nonsense.
Physically, well there are enough experiments showing it is NOT.
For instance:
4. Tests of Time Dilation and Transverse Doppler Effect
The Doppler effect is the observed variation in frequency of a source when it is observed by a
detector that is moving relative to the source. This effect is most pronounced when the source is
moving directly toward or away from the detector, and in pre-relativity physics its value was zero
for transverse motion (motion perpendicular to the source-detector line). In SR there is a non-zero
Doppler effect for transverse motion, due to the relative time dilation of the source as seen by the
detector. Measurements of Doppler shifts for sources moving with velocities approaching c can test
the validity of SR's prediction for such observations, which differs significantly from classical
predictions; the experiments support SR and are in complete disagreement with non-relativistic
predictions.
from:http://math.ucr.edu/home/baez/physics/R ... ments.html
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roger
roger

January 12th, 2018, 5:30 pm #8

In 1905 Einstein derived the Lorentz equations from the constancy of the speed of light, but where did Einstein take the constancy from? He "borrowed" it from the Lorentz equations - it is as simple as that:

Albert Einstein: "...I introduced the principle of the constancy of the velocity of light, which I borrowed from H. A. Lorentz's theory of the stationary luminiferous ether..." https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lorentz_ether_theory

Pentcho Valev
>>> Einstein throws away the aether/absolute/preferred frame and so we have nonsense of each person claiming time is slower for the other person
>Mathematically it is NOT nonsense.

It is nonsense, because have :

some people going by Einstein under relativity: each observer says the other person's clock is slower

and some people going by Lorentz: only one clock is slower

and both people claiming experiments support what they say.
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roger
roger

January 12th, 2018, 6:03 pm #9

In 1905 Einstein derived the Lorentz equations from the constancy of the speed of light, but where did Einstein take the constancy from? He "borrowed" it from the Lorentz equations - it is as simple as that:

Albert Einstein: "...I introduced the principle of the constancy of the velocity of light, which I borrowed from H. A. Lorentz's theory of the stationary luminiferous ether..." https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lorentz_ether_theory

Pentcho Valev
such vague claims as

>>> the relative time dilation of the source as seen by the
detector.

leads some people to say both clocks are slower, while other people say only one clock slower
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Anonym
Anonym

January 12th, 2018, 6:58 pm #10

In 1905 Einstein derived the Lorentz equations from the constancy of the speed of light, but where did Einstein take the constancy from? He "borrowed" it from the Lorentz equations - it is as simple as that:

Albert Einstein: "...I introduced the principle of the constancy of the velocity of light, which I borrowed from H. A. Lorentz's theory of the stationary luminiferous ether..." https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lorentz_ether_theory

Pentcho Valev
you talking to idiot.
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