why Jesus said "Before Abraham was, I am" - is bcoz He is the Word -John 1:1-14 read here

why Jesus said "Before Abraham was, I am" - is bcoz He is the Word -John 1:1-14 read here

Joined: May 1st, 2011, 10:43 am

October 31st, 2011, 5:22 pm #1

John 1:1-14
New International Version (NIV)
John 1

The Word Became Flesh

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was with God in the beginning. 3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made. 4 In him was life, and that life was the light of all mankind. 5 The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome[a] it.
6 There was a man sent from God whose name was John. 7 He came as a witness to testify concerning that light, so that through him all might believe. 8 He himself was not the light; he came only as a witness to the light.

9 The true light that gives light to everyone was coming into the world. 10 He was in the world, and though the world was made through him, the world did not recognize him. 11 He came to that which was his own, but his own did not receive him. 12 Yet to all who did receive him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God 13 children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husbands will, but born of God.

14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.
Quote
Like
Share

Joined: August 23rd, 2011, 2:59 pm

October 31st, 2011, 7:07 pm #2

The Word

It refers to Christ.. yet it was a plan, a thought, a concept, or an intellectual emanation... and no physical or corporeal existence then.

Most probably, everytime I ask those who profess to be Christians about their belief as to the nature of our Lord Jesus Christ, or if we are to ask plainly: "Is Jesus Christ God or not?" What would they say?

"...our belief in the deity of Christ is the positive declaration in the magnificent passage that opens John's gospel: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God (John 1:1). "Notice that last phrase, ..and the Word was God.' Now, the term 'word' in this verse refers unmistakably to the Lord Jesus Christ. In fact, we read in John 1:14, "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us (and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father), full of grace and truth." The conclusion that the Word is Jesus Christ Himself is inescapable. And verse I says that 'the word was God.' The Lord Jesus is eternally existent as God always was, is, and ever shall be." [De Haan, pp. 20-21]

They are quick to answer, that Jesus Christ is God. They would even point out, that the basis for their belief is the Bible. The most popular verse they use in their effort to assert Christ's alleged deity is John 1:1.

It is my belief, however, which is based on the Bible that our Lord Jesus Christ is man in state of being and He did not have any corporeal existence prior to His birth. Also, that there is no biblical verse which proves that Christ is God. My belief rests solely on the biblical fact that there is but one God who is the Father. This is the foundation of our faith. If there is any verse which people claim proves the alleged deity of Christ, this verse has been wrongly interpreted by these people.

People may be wondering now who to believe. How would one know which explanation of a biblical verse is the correct one? The Apostle Paul gives us the guidelines for determining the truth, in I Corinthians 2:13 -

"This is what we speak, not in words taught us by human wisdom but in words taught by the Spirit, expressing spiritual truths in spiritual words.". (NEB)

The Apostles tell us that we must express spiritual truths in spiritual words or we must let the words of God explain the words of God. If an explanation of a biblical verse is needed, we must go to the Bible and let it explain itself. The word of God does not contradict the word of God. If it is said that the Bible contradicts itself, it would amount to saying that God contradicts Himself, which is absurd and impossible. So if an explanation of a particular verse contradicts other parts of the Scriptures, such is not the correct explanation of the verse. The proper explanation of any verse is that which does not contradict any other part of the Scriptures.

People who call themselves Christians believe and teach that John 1:1 refers to Christ's pre-existence as God. They say this because the Word, who they believe is Christ Himself, existed with God in the beginning, but what would be the result if one would accept this line of reasoning?

It would create a great contradiction in the Bible. There would now appear to be two gods. This can be seen in the portion of the verse which says, "and the Word was with God." If they insist that the "Word" means that Christ is already existing since the very beginning as God, then He is God with another God. The preposition "with" used in the verse indicates that one is with someone else. In this case a God with God. Two distinct and separate entities. But there might be some who would say that this is just an opinion. But even Protestant theologians agree to this like Dr. Charles Caldwell Ryrie, professor of Systematic Theology, Dallas Theological Seminary. In the annotations of his Ryrie Study Bible he had this to say about the phrase in John 1:1 "and the word was with God."

"In this verse the Word (Christ) is said to be with God (that is, in communion with and yet distinct from God)." (p. 1599)

Dr Ryrie says that the Word is distinct from God. How does Dr. Ryrie use the word distinct, and does he mean that the Word is the same as God? In his introductory statement he stated how people may be able to understand the meaning of words being employed in the Ryrie Study Bible.

"Some are explained in the notes of this study Bible. Others you may have to look up in an English dictionary, which is one of the most important tools to have within reach when you study the Bible." (p. vi)

Using Dr. Ryrie's advise let us turn to an English dictionary to find out what he means when he says, "the Word is distinct from God."

distinct ...distinguished as not being the same, not identical; separate ...different in nature or quality.

Therefore, when Dr. Ryrie says, that the Word is distinct from God he is saying the Word is not the same, but rather separate or different from God. Based on the understanding of those who assert the alleged deity of Christ it would now appear that the Bible is teaching that there are two gods. In addition to the verse itself there would also result a great contradiction in other parts of the Bible.

In fact in the Gospel of John, Christ's prayer can be read, thus:

"These things Jesus spoke: and lifting up His eves lo heaven, He said, Father, the hour has come; glorify Thy Son that the Son may glorify Thee... And this is eternal life, that they may know Thee, the only true God and Jesus Christ whom Thou has sent: John 17:1, 3, NASB

According to our Lord Jesus Christ there is only one true God - the Father. Christ did not say, "that they may know Us," or, "that they may know You and Me as the only true God." He excluded Himself from the statement, "the only true God," as He pointed to the Father in heaven as the only true God.

Hence, the understanding of people who take John 1:1 to mean that Christ preexisted in the beginning with God as god is against the Holy Scriptures. It follows that theirs is an improper understanding of the verse.



Quote
Like
Share

Joined: August 23rd, 2011, 2:59 pm

October 31st, 2011, 7:07 pm #3

John 1:1-14
New International Version (NIV)
John 1

The Word Became Flesh

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was with God in the beginning. 3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made. 4 In him was life, and that life was the light of all mankind. 5 The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome[a] it.
6 There was a man sent from God whose name was John. 7 He came as a witness to testify concerning that light, so that through him all might believe. 8 He himself was not the light; he came only as a witness to the light.

9 The true light that gives light to everyone was coming into the world. 10 He was in the world, and though the world was made through him, the world did not recognize him. 11 He came to that which was his own, but his own did not receive him. 12 Yet to all who did receive him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God 13 children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husbands will, but born of God.

14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.
THE BIBLICAL MEANING

People may now ask, "If John 1:1 does not express the pre-existence of Christ as God already with the Father, what then does the verse mean?" In order to find out the biblical meaning of the verse in question, it must first be understood that there are three elements in John 1:1, namely:

1. In the beginning was the Word 2. And the Word was with God 3. And the Word was God

Let us take a look at this verse piece by piece to come to the true understanding of John 1:1. What is the meaning of the first segment, "In the beginning was the Word?" Does it imply that Christ is God who had substance or state of being with God? The answer can be found in Apostle Paul's letter to the Ephesians,

"This was according to the eternal purpose which he realized in Christ Jesus our Lord." Ephesians 3:11, RSV

There is an eternal purpose or plan which was realized in Jesus Christ. Since when did God conceive of this plan? Again the Apostle Paul further explains:

"And to make all men see what is the plan of the mystery hidden for ages in God who created all things;" Ephesians 3:9

Paul tells us that the purpose or plan of God was conceived and was hidden for ages. In the same manner, John is teaching that in the beginning, ages ago, God already planned that there would be a Christ. When was this ages ago? This is further revealed by the Apostle Peter:

"For He was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but has appeared in these last times for the sake of you." I Peter 1:20

When John wrote, "In the beginning was the Word," he is teaching that in the beginning, before the foundation of the world, God has already foreknown or planned that there shall be a Christ.

There is an argument of some people who say even though Christ was planned before the foundation of the world, He was existing with God in the beginning in His present state of being. If this were the case and if people would continue to hold to such a line of reasoning what would be the disastrous effect in clinging to such a belief?

In Ephesians 1:4, according to the Apostle Paul who else were chosen or planned before the foundation of the world?

"just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before Him, in love." Ephesians 1:4

Man was also chosen to be in Christ before the foundation of the world. Is it correct to infer that all men had pre-existence in state of being? This is not what the apostle is teaching. It can be read quite clearly in the book of Genesis that God created the world before he created man. Paul is teaching that man was chosen or planned to be in Christ. Just as God also planned that there would be a Christ.

ATTESTED TO BY THEOLOGIANS

Therefore when the Bible speaks of a plan as it does with Christ, it does not mean something with substance or state of being. In fact if we were to consult other religious authorities as to how they understand John 1:1, what is their understanding of the verse?

The New American Catholic Edition, Douay Confraternity Bible with comments and footnotes of verses will enable us to see the Catholic Church's understanding of the verse. In the footnote of this Bible for John 1:1 this is what they have stated.

St. John employs the term Word. It is so used onlv by St. John and designates the Son as a kind of intellectual emanation from the Father."

If we would consult a dictionary as to the meanings of intellectual and emanation, the understanding of the verse by Catholic authorities would become much clearer. Intellectual - "devoted to matters of the mind." Emanation - "to come out from a source." In other words "intellectual emanation from the Father" means a thought coming from the Father.

Furthermore, it must be remembered that the original language used in writing the New Testament is Greek. What is the Greek word for "Word" in John 1:1 and does it mean something with substance or already having a state of being? Turning again to Dr. Ryrie's comments in the Ryrie Study Bible, he states this on page 1599:

Word (Greek: logos) logos means word, thought, concept, and the expressions thereof.

Word or logos in the Greek language means thought or concept. This is very similar to what the Catholic authorities state as to the meaning of "Word." In fact, in the secular language of the Greeks, logos does not change its meaning, as can be read from the The New Encyclopaedia Britannica Micropaedia.

Logos (Greek: 'word reason, or 'plan') (p. 302)

All these terms which are descriptive of the word logos do not indicate something with substance or state of being. Intellectual emanation, thought, concept, reason and plan are terms which refer to things which are abstract and without substance. Therefore, when Apostle John wrote "In the beginning was the Word," and the Apostle Paul wrote, "the plan of the mystery hidden for ages in God," and Peter wrote, "He was foreknown before the foundation of the world," the Bible is not teaching that Christ eternally existed with state of being but rather God had a plan that there would be a Christ. AND THE WORD WAS WITH GOD This now leads us to the second part of the verse, "and the Word was with God." What is the meaning of this portion of the Verse? As mentioned before in Ephesians 3:9, 11 and I Peter 1:20, there is a plan of God that there would be a Christ. Since it was God who thought of it, it follows that the word or plan was with God, because the source and origin of the word is God. Did this plan which originated with God remain only with Him? Did it remain hidden with God, who solely know of it for all times? In Romans 1:2-3 the Apostle Paul reveals God's will and purpose. which He promised beforehand through His prophets in the Holy Scriptures, concerning His Son who was born of a descendant of David according to the flesh. (NASB)

God's plan did not remain with Him hidden in mystery but was revealed to mankind through His prophets. He revealed it in the form of a promise which we can find written in the Holy Scriptures.
Quote
Like
Share

Joined: August 23rd, 2011, 2:59 pm

October 31st, 2011, 7:07 pm #4

John 1:1-14
New International Version (NIV)
John 1

The Word Became Flesh

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was with God in the beginning. 3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made. 4 In him was life, and that life was the light of all mankind. 5 The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome[a] it.
6 There was a man sent from God whose name was John. 7 He came as a witness to testify concerning that light, so that through him all might believe. 8 He himself was not the light; he came only as a witness to the light.

9 The true light that gives light to everyone was coming into the world. 10 He was in the world, and though the world was made through him, the world did not recognize him. 11 He came to that which was his own, but his own did not receive him. 12 Yet to all who did receive him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God 13 children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husbands will, but born of God.

14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.
AND THE WORD WAS GOD

This brings us to the third and last part of the verse, "and the Word was God." This is the reason why many people today believe that Christ is God. They say, "Can't you see that Christ is the Word, and the Word was God, therefore Christ is God!"

This is a hasty conclusion on their part regarding John 1:1. What is the biblical meaning of what John wrote "and the Word was God?" The Gospel according to Luke shows the uniqueness of God's word.

"For no word from God shall be void of power." Luke 1:37, (ASV)

When John wrote, "and the Word was God," he was not teaching that Christ is God but rather he was showing the quality of God's Word. This unique characteristic of the Word is that there is no word of God void of power. God's word possesses His power. What about God? What is the quality of God? God Himself declares His uniqueness in Genesis 17:1.

Now when Abram was ninetv-nine years old, the Lord appeared to Abram and said to him, '1 am God Almighty(NASB)

The quality of God is He is almighty or all-powerful, likewise His words are powerful. This is why John said, "and the Word was God." John was teaching God's word is powerful as the One who had spoken the word is all-powerful.

This is also attested to by other theologians like those who compiled The New Bible Dictionary, in reference to John 1:1 it is stated thus:

"The Word possesses a like power to God who speaks it." (p. 744)

This is not the only book written by theologians which agree to the fact that the phrase "and the Word was God," speaks of the quality of the Word in power rather than to Christ allegedly having a state of being as God or pre-existing as God. In a book entitled An Idiom Book of New Testament Greek, by C.F.D. Moule, this is stated:

"It is necessarily without the article (Theos not o' Theos) in as much as it describes the nature of the Word and does not identify His Person." (p. 116)

Moule is referring to the grammatical construction of the phrase, "the word was God," in the original Greek language. The Greek word in question is "Theos." When "Theos" is preceded bv the article "o" it in-dicates that God is being used as a noun. But what can be seen in the existing Greek manuscripts of John 1:1 is that the article "o" is not present before the word Theos. This being the case, "theos" is not used as a noun but as an adjective. Apostle John used the word, "Theos," to express the quality of the Word rather than identifying the person. In other words, he employs the word Theos in describing the logos that the logos possesses the quality of God and not that the logos is God in state of being. The English equivalent of "Theos" without the article "o" would be the adjective divine. This is proven bv other Bible translations such as Moffatt's rendition of the verse. Thus it is stated in John 1:1.

"The Logos existed in the very beginning, the Logos was with God, the Logos was divine."

Therefore, as much as people would like to assert that Christ is God because the Word was God, such a belief however, is without foundation. The Greek manuscripts [the original New Testament] of John 1:1 do not support their claim. Even those Bible translators who are proficient in the Greek of the New Testament agree that "Theos" is being employed as an adjective describing the quality of the Word. Since the Word originated from God and the quality of the Word. Since the Word originated from God and the quality of God is powerful so likewise is His Word. Why then is the Word of God powerful? God declares in Isaiah 46:11 the reason why His word has power.

"...Truly I have spoken; truly I will bring it to pass. I have planned it. surely I will do it." (NASB)

The word of God has power because God will do what He has planned, or will bring it to pass. What is the proof that what God has planned will come to pass hence His words have power? In John 1:14 -

"And the Word was made flesh..." (KJV)

God's plan that there would be a Christ came to pass. His word has power. But does this mean that the word has power by itself? No. The Word does not possess power by itself, because the Word did not make itself flesh. It was made flesh! Someone made the Word flesh. Who made it flesh? He was the One who spoke the Word, God the Father, the Creator of all things. The biblical meaning of the "the Word was made flesh" is explained by the Apostle Pual in Galatians 4:4.

"But when the fulness of time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the law." (NASB)

The Word was made flesh meant that God's plan was realized when God sent His Son born of a woman. And being the fulfillment of God's plan, Jesus Christ was then believed as the Word of God.
Quote
Like
Share

Joined: August 23rd, 2011, 2:59 pm

October 31st, 2011, 7:08 pm #5

John 1:1-14
New International Version (NIV)
John 1

The Word Became Flesh

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was with God in the beginning. 3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made. 4 In him was life, and that life was the light of all mankind. 5 The light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome[a] it.
6 There was a man sent from God whose name was John. 7 He came as a witness to testify concerning that light, so that through him all might believe. 8 He himself was not the light; he came only as a witness to the light.

9 The true light that gives light to everyone was coming into the world. 10 He was in the world, and though the world was made through him, the world did not recognize him. 11 He came to that which was his own, but his own did not receive him. 12 Yet to all who did receive him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God 13 children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husbands will, but born of God.

14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.
THIS IS ETERNAL LIFE

Therefore John 1:1 is not teaching any pre-existing being in the person of Jesus Christ. Rather, when the Gospel of John states, "In the beginning was the Word," this means that before the foundation of the world God had planned that there would be a Christ. Also when the Gospel states, "and the Word was with God," this means God is the origin or the source of the Word. The last part of the verse which states, "and the Word was God," shows the quality of the Word which has power like the One who spoke it. And when John stated, "the Word was made flesh," God's plan was fulfilled when Jesus was born of Mary.

What is the importance of knowing the truth that the Father is the only true God and the truth that Christ is not God but rather the Son of the only true Clod. Our Lord Jesus Christ makes known to us the importance; of this great truth, in John 17:3,1.

"And this is eternal life, that they mav know Thee, the onlv true, and Jesus Christ whom Thou has sent. "This things Jesus spoke: and lifting up His eves to heaven, He said, father, the hour has come; glorify Thy son, that the Son may glorify thee."

The importance of knowing this great truth is that, it means eternal life. This is what man must know to take hold of God's promise of eternal life.

Jesus had the title the Word of God in the book of Revelation... as I said, Jesus, being the fulfillment of the word, He was later called the Word of God.... but Jesus was not called God or even called by the apostles as God... or even declared or introduced Himself as God.
Quote
Like
Share

Joined: May 1st, 2011, 10:43 am

October 31st, 2011, 8:07 pm #6

The Word

It refers to Christ.. yet it was a plan, a thought, a concept, or an intellectual emanation... and no physical or corporeal existence then.

Most probably, everytime I ask those who profess to be Christians about their belief as to the nature of our Lord Jesus Christ, or if we are to ask plainly: "Is Jesus Christ God or not?" What would they say?

"...our belief in the deity of Christ is the positive declaration in the magnificent passage that opens John's gospel: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God (John 1:1). "Notice that last phrase, ..and the Word was God.' Now, the term 'word' in this verse refers unmistakably to the Lord Jesus Christ. In fact, we read in John 1:14, "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us (and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father), full of grace and truth." The conclusion that the Word is Jesus Christ Himself is inescapable. And verse I says that 'the word was God.' The Lord Jesus is eternally existent as God always was, is, and ever shall be." [De Haan, pp. 20-21]

They are quick to answer, that Jesus Christ is God. They would even point out, that the basis for their belief is the Bible. The most popular verse they use in their effort to assert Christ's alleged deity is John 1:1.

It is my belief, however, which is based on the Bible that our Lord Jesus Christ is man in state of being and He did not have any corporeal existence prior to His birth. Also, that there is no biblical verse which proves that Christ is God. My belief rests solely on the biblical fact that there is but one God who is the Father. This is the foundation of our faith. If there is any verse which people claim proves the alleged deity of Christ, this verse has been wrongly interpreted by these people.

People may be wondering now who to believe. How would one know which explanation of a biblical verse is the correct one? The Apostle Paul gives us the guidelines for determining the truth, in I Corinthians 2:13 -

"This is what we speak, not in words taught us by human wisdom but in words taught by the Spirit, expressing spiritual truths in spiritual words.". (NEB)

The Apostles tell us that we must express spiritual truths in spiritual words or we must let the words of God explain the words of God. If an explanation of a biblical verse is needed, we must go to the Bible and let it explain itself. The word of God does not contradict the word of God. If it is said that the Bible contradicts itself, it would amount to saying that God contradicts Himself, which is absurd and impossible. So if an explanation of a particular verse contradicts other parts of the Scriptures, such is not the correct explanation of the verse. The proper explanation of any verse is that which does not contradict any other part of the Scriptures.

People who call themselves Christians believe and teach that John 1:1 refers to Christ's pre-existence as God. They say this because the Word, who they believe is Christ Himself, existed with God in the beginning, but what would be the result if one would accept this line of reasoning?

It would create a great contradiction in the Bible. There would now appear to be two gods. This can be seen in the portion of the verse which says, "and the Word was with God." If they insist that the "Word" means that Christ is already existing since the very beginning as God, then He is God with another God. The preposition "with" used in the verse indicates that one is with someone else. In this case a God with God. Two distinct and separate entities. But there might be some who would say that this is just an opinion. But even Protestant theologians agree to this like Dr. Charles Caldwell Ryrie, professor of Systematic Theology, Dallas Theological Seminary. In the annotations of his Ryrie Study Bible he had this to say about the phrase in John 1:1 "and the word was with God."

"In this verse the Word (Christ) is said to be with God (that is, in communion with and yet distinct from God)." (p. 1599)

Dr Ryrie says that the Word is distinct from God. How does Dr. Ryrie use the word distinct, and does he mean that the Word is the same as God? In his introductory statement he stated how people may be able to understand the meaning of words being employed in the Ryrie Study Bible.

"Some are explained in the notes of this study Bible. Others you may have to look up in an English dictionary, which is one of the most important tools to have within reach when you study the Bible." (p. vi)

Using Dr. Ryrie's advise let us turn to an English dictionary to find out what he means when he says, "the Word is distinct from God."

distinct ...distinguished as not being the same, not identical; separate ...different in nature or quality.

Therefore, when Dr. Ryrie says, that the Word is distinct from God he is saying the Word is not the same, but rather separate or different from God. Based on the understanding of those who assert the alleged deity of Christ it would now appear that the Bible is teaching that there are two gods. In addition to the verse itself there would also result a great contradiction in other parts of the Bible.

In fact in the Gospel of John, Christ's prayer can be read, thus:

"These things Jesus spoke: and lifting up His eves lo heaven, He said, Father, the hour has come; glorify Thy Son that the Son may glorify Thee... And this is eternal life, that they may know Thee, the only true God and Jesus Christ whom Thou has sent: John 17:1, 3, NASB

According to our Lord Jesus Christ there is only one true God - the Father. Christ did not say, "that they may know Us," or, "that they may know You and Me as the only true God." He excluded Himself from the statement, "the only true God," as He pointed to the Father in heaven as the only true God.

Hence, the understanding of people who take John 1:1 to mean that Christ preexisted in the beginning with God as god is against the Holy Scriptures. It follows that theirs is an improper understanding of the verse.


it refers to Christ, the other meaning is not applicable. Christ exist & He is not a plan
Quote
Like
Share

Joined: May 1st, 2011, 10:43 am

October 31st, 2011, 8:16 pm #7

AND THE WORD WAS GOD

This brings us to the third and last part of the verse, "and the Word was God." This is the reason why many people today believe that Christ is God. They say, "Can't you see that Christ is the Word, and the Word was God, therefore Christ is God!"

This is a hasty conclusion on their part regarding John 1:1. What is the biblical meaning of what John wrote "and the Word was God?" The Gospel according to Luke shows the uniqueness of God's word.

"For no word from God shall be void of power." Luke 1:37, (ASV)

When John wrote, "and the Word was God," he was not teaching that Christ is God but rather he was showing the quality of God's Word. This unique characteristic of the Word is that there is no word of God void of power. God's word possesses His power. What about God? What is the quality of God? God Himself declares His uniqueness in Genesis 17:1.

Now when Abram was ninetv-nine years old, the Lord appeared to Abram and said to him, '1 am God Almighty(NASB)

The quality of God is He is almighty or all-powerful, likewise His words are powerful. This is why John said, "and the Word was God." John was teaching God's word is powerful as the One who had spoken the word is all-powerful.

This is also attested to by other theologians like those who compiled The New Bible Dictionary, in reference to John 1:1 it is stated thus:

"The Word possesses a like power to God who speaks it." (p. 744)

This is not the only book written by theologians which agree to the fact that the phrase "and the Word was God," speaks of the quality of the Word in power rather than to Christ allegedly having a state of being as God or pre-existing as God. In a book entitled An Idiom Book of New Testament Greek, by C.F.D. Moule, this is stated:

"It is necessarily without the article (Theos not o' Theos) in as much as it describes the nature of the Word and does not identify His Person." (p. 116)

Moule is referring to the grammatical construction of the phrase, "the word was God," in the original Greek language. The Greek word in question is "Theos." When "Theos" is preceded bv the article "o" it in-dicates that God is being used as a noun. But what can be seen in the existing Greek manuscripts of John 1:1 is that the article "o" is not present before the word Theos. This being the case, "theos" is not used as a noun but as an adjective. Apostle John used the word, "Theos," to express the quality of the Word rather than identifying the person. In other words, he employs the word Theos in describing the logos that the logos possesses the quality of God and not that the logos is God in state of being. The English equivalent of "Theos" without the article "o" would be the adjective divine. This is proven bv other Bible translations such as Moffatt's rendition of the verse. Thus it is stated in John 1:1.

"The Logos existed in the very beginning, the Logos was with God, the Logos was divine."

Therefore, as much as people would like to assert that Christ is God because the Word was God, such a belief however, is without foundation. The Greek manuscripts [the original New Testament] of John 1:1 do not support their claim. Even those Bible translators who are proficient in the Greek of the New Testament agree that "Theos" is being employed as an adjective describing the quality of the Word. Since the Word originated from God and the quality of the Word. Since the Word originated from God and the quality of God is powerful so likewise is His Word. Why then is the Word of God powerful? God declares in Isaiah 46:11 the reason why His word has power.

"...Truly I have spoken; truly I will bring it to pass. I have planned it. surely I will do it." (NASB)

The word of God has power because God will do what He has planned, or will bring it to pass. What is the proof that what God has planned will come to pass hence His words have power? In John 1:14 -

"And the Word was made flesh..." (KJV)

God's plan that there would be a Christ came to pass. His word has power. But does this mean that the word has power by itself? No. The Word does not possess power by itself, because the Word did not make itself flesh. It was made flesh! Someone made the Word flesh. Who made it flesh? He was the One who spoke the Word, God the Father, the Creator of all things. The biblical meaning of the "the Word was made flesh" is explained by the Apostle Pual in Galatians 4:4.

"But when the fulness of time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the law." (NASB)

The Word was made flesh meant that God's plan was realized when God sent His Son born of a woman. And being the fulfillment of God's plan, Jesus Christ was then believed as the Word of God.
so INC belief is wrong since you have this definition, why believe Jesus is just a man?
Quote
Like
Share

Joined: May 1st, 2011, 10:43 am

October 31st, 2011, 8:20 pm #8

THIS IS ETERNAL LIFE

Therefore John 1:1 is not teaching any pre-existing being in the person of Jesus Christ. Rather, when the Gospel of John states, "In the beginning was the Word," this means that before the foundation of the world God had planned that there would be a Christ. Also when the Gospel states, "and the Word was with God," this means God is the origin or the source of the Word. The last part of the verse which states, "and the Word was God," shows the quality of the Word which has power like the One who spoke it. And when John stated, "the Word was made flesh," God's plan was fulfilled when Jesus was born of Mary.

What is the importance of knowing the truth that the Father is the only true God and the truth that Christ is not God but rather the Son of the only true Clod. Our Lord Jesus Christ makes known to us the importance; of this great truth, in John 17:3,1.

"And this is eternal life, that they mav know Thee, the onlv true, and Jesus Christ whom Thou has sent. "This things Jesus spoke: and lifting up His eves to heaven, He said, father, the hour has come; glorify Thy son, that the Son may glorify thee."

The importance of knowing this great truth is that, it means eternal life. This is what man must know to take hold of God's promise of eternal life.

Jesus had the title the Word of God in the book of Revelation... as I said, Jesus, being the fulfillment of the word, He was later called the Word of God.... but Jesus was not called God or even called by the apostles as God... or even declared or introduced Himself as God.
if Jesus to you is not God yet u believe Hes the Son of God,what is His state of being?
Quote
Like
Share

Joined: May 1st, 2011, 10:43 am

October 31st, 2011, 8:26 pm #9

The Word

It refers to Christ.. yet it was a plan, a thought, a concept, or an intellectual emanation... and no physical or corporeal existence then.

Most probably, everytime I ask those who profess to be Christians about their belief as to the nature of our Lord Jesus Christ, or if we are to ask plainly: "Is Jesus Christ God or not?" What would they say?

"...our belief in the deity of Christ is the positive declaration in the magnificent passage that opens John's gospel: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God (John 1:1). "Notice that last phrase, ..and the Word was God.' Now, the term 'word' in this verse refers unmistakably to the Lord Jesus Christ. In fact, we read in John 1:14, "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us (and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father), full of grace and truth." The conclusion that the Word is Jesus Christ Himself is inescapable. And verse I says that 'the word was God.' The Lord Jesus is eternally existent as God always was, is, and ever shall be." [De Haan, pp. 20-21]

They are quick to answer, that Jesus Christ is God. They would even point out, that the basis for their belief is the Bible. The most popular verse they use in their effort to assert Christ's alleged deity is John 1:1.

It is my belief, however, which is based on the Bible that our Lord Jesus Christ is man in state of being and He did not have any corporeal existence prior to His birth. Also, that there is no biblical verse which proves that Christ is God. My belief rests solely on the biblical fact that there is but one God who is the Father. This is the foundation of our faith. If there is any verse which people claim proves the alleged deity of Christ, this verse has been wrongly interpreted by these people.

People may be wondering now who to believe. How would one know which explanation of a biblical verse is the correct one? The Apostle Paul gives us the guidelines for determining the truth, in I Corinthians 2:13 -

"This is what we speak, not in words taught us by human wisdom but in words taught by the Spirit, expressing spiritual truths in spiritual words.". (NEB)

The Apostles tell us that we must express spiritual truths in spiritual words or we must let the words of God explain the words of God. If an explanation of a biblical verse is needed, we must go to the Bible and let it explain itself. The word of God does not contradict the word of God. If it is said that the Bible contradicts itself, it would amount to saying that God contradicts Himself, which is absurd and impossible. So if an explanation of a particular verse contradicts other parts of the Scriptures, such is not the correct explanation of the verse. The proper explanation of any verse is that which does not contradict any other part of the Scriptures.

People who call themselves Christians believe and teach that John 1:1 refers to Christ's pre-existence as God. They say this because the Word, who they believe is Christ Himself, existed with God in the beginning, but what would be the result if one would accept this line of reasoning?

It would create a great contradiction in the Bible. There would now appear to be two gods. This can be seen in the portion of the verse which says, "and the Word was with God." If they insist that the "Word" means that Christ is already existing since the very beginning as God, then He is God with another God. The preposition "with" used in the verse indicates that one is with someone else. In this case a God with God. Two distinct and separate entities. But there might be some who would say that this is just an opinion. But even Protestant theologians agree to this like Dr. Charles Caldwell Ryrie, professor of Systematic Theology, Dallas Theological Seminary. In the annotations of his Ryrie Study Bible he had this to say about the phrase in John 1:1 "and the word was with God."

"In this verse the Word (Christ) is said to be with God (that is, in communion with and yet distinct from God)." (p. 1599)

Dr Ryrie says that the Word is distinct from God. How does Dr. Ryrie use the word distinct, and does he mean that the Word is the same as God? In his introductory statement he stated how people may be able to understand the meaning of words being employed in the Ryrie Study Bible.

"Some are explained in the notes of this study Bible. Others you may have to look up in an English dictionary, which is one of the most important tools to have within reach when you study the Bible." (p. vi)

Using Dr. Ryrie's advise let us turn to an English dictionary to find out what he means when he says, "the Word is distinct from God."

distinct ...distinguished as not being the same, not identical; separate ...different in nature or quality.

Therefore, when Dr. Ryrie says, that the Word is distinct from God he is saying the Word is not the same, but rather separate or different from God. Based on the understanding of those who assert the alleged deity of Christ it would now appear that the Bible is teaching that there are two gods. In addition to the verse itself there would also result a great contradiction in other parts of the Bible.

In fact in the Gospel of John, Christ's prayer can be read, thus:

"These things Jesus spoke: and lifting up His eves lo heaven, He said, Father, the hour has come; glorify Thy Son that the Son may glorify Thee... And this is eternal life, that they may know Thee, the only true God and Jesus Christ whom Thou has sent: John 17:1, 3, NASB

According to our Lord Jesus Christ there is only one true God - the Father. Christ did not say, "that they may know Us," or, "that they may know You and Me as the only true God." He excluded Himself from the statement, "the only true God," as He pointed to the Father in heaven as the only true God.

Hence, the understanding of people who take John 1:1 to mean that Christ preexisted in the beginning with God as god is against the Holy Scriptures. It follows that theirs is an improper understanding of the verse.


if the Word already exist from the beginning, its not a concept & its not a plan
Quote
Like
Share

Joined: June 19th, 2010, 12:50 pm

November 1st, 2011, 3:34 am #10

it refers to Christ, the other meaning is not applicable. Christ exist & He is not a plan
Why?

:

John 17:1,3 KJV These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee: (3) And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.


(1 Corinthians 8:6 DRB) Yet to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we unto him: and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.

(Malachi 2:10 DRB) Have we not all one father? hath not one God created us? why then doth every one of us despise his brother, violating the covenant of our fathers?

(Ephesians 4:6 DRB) One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in us all.
Quote
Like
Share